Can't vs. has

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Can't vs. has
If you line up three blindfolded food tasters and rate their responses on the difference in taste between arugula and parsley, would it make sense to proclaim there are no taste differences if that should be their conclusion? More to the point, if in blind testing on someone's HiFi system there are no differences heard between cables or equipment, do we simply then state there are no differences to be had? When does it make sense to first set up a system that testers do hear differences and then begin testing it on differing levels of listeners? If you want to discover how many people can tell the difference between something you first need to make sure the experiment is set up in such a way that at a minimum the proponents of the experiment agree it's working. If we want to learn the truth about falling trees and the sounds they do or do not make, it's probably best to set up the experiment in a forest of trees.
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Paul McGowan Paul McGowan

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